Implied 64 cadences

[allorens]

If the bass has a 8-1 movement over the dominant before directly resolving into the tonic and the other parts are either silent or have just the dominant note, should annotators be encouraged to enter V(64) V I' or just V I?
(Depending on the repertoire, I'd personally go for the implied V(64 V I sequence as continuo players would do)

[allorens]

Or in cases where there is only a written-down appogiatura for the 4 and not for the 6 (or vice versa), should one make a rule to annotate the full (64)?

[johentsch]

Accompanists have of course a lot of freedom but, personally, I think that is something that should be shifted more on the harmony modelling rather than the annotating side. Our approach so far has been to always include the original bass figures and use them as reference. However, in cases where it is obvious what the accompanist would do (maybe this is not one of them?) this should be incorporated.

Maybe we can re-consider this question with Johannes Menke who is (in case you don't know him) a theory expert for ancient music (entre autre) and who has annotated a lot of Couperin concerts. I'm pretty sure that he has a strong opinion on this question...