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Description
hello
if I fit a brm model of a DV y as a function of predictors
brm(y~predictors)
then rope_range will be based on the sd of y.
If I scale this variable y before taking it into the model as in :
z=f(y)
brm(z~predictors)
then rope_range will be based on the sd of z, which is fine.
BUT : if I use the function into the brm formula as in :
brm(f(x)~predictors)
then the rope_range will not be based on the values of f(x) and remains computed on the basis of the sd of x
not sure if that's correct, as the function f is often "scale"
thought it could be misleading, but it could also be a stupid remark :)
thanks
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3 investigators ❔❓Need to look further into this issueNeed to look further into this issue